Modul ini dipersiapkan untuk menghadapi tes certifikasi ujian CCNA 3 yang akan dilaksanakan diakhir semester 3 ini, mudah-mudahan semua sukses...
Chap 1
1. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
* RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.
RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.
RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.
RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.
RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.
2. Which of the following statements are true regarding RIP v1 and v2? (Choose three.)
* Both RIP versions use hop count.
Both RIP versions can provide authentication of update sources.
* Both RIP versions use 16 hops as a metric for infinite distance.
RIP v1 uses split horizon to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
RIP v1 uses hold-down times to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
* RIP v1 broadcasts routing table updates, while RIP v2 multicasts its updates.
3. A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
* Select the routing protocol to be configured.
* Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
* Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.
4. Router1 and Router2 shown in the topology have been configured with the no ip subnet-zero command. Which of the following valid VLSM network numbers could be used for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.0/30
* 192.168.1.4/30
* 192.168.1.8/30
192.168.1.96/30
192.168.1.138/30
192.168.1.190/30
5. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
* router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update
6. How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
* manual configuration of routes
* updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base
7. Refer to the network shown. How will Router1 summarize and advertise the four networks attached to its Ethernet ports?
172.16.16.0/20
172.16.19.0/20
172.16.16.0/20 and 172.16.19.0/20
* 172.16.16.0/22
172.16.18.0/24
172.16.0.0/24
8. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
3
4
12
36
* 84
180
9. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
* /27
/26
10. How often does RIP v1 send routing table updates, by default?
* every 30 seconds
every 45 seconds
every 60 seconds
every 90 seconds
11. What is the default network mask for a Class B address?
255.0.0.0
* 255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.255
12. Which subnet mask is represented by the /21 notation?
255.255.224.0
* 255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.240.0
13. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
* 32-bit address
next hop router interface
* subnet mask
unicast host address
Layer 2 address
14. What is the purpose of the network command used in the configuration of the RIP routing protocol?
It specifies RIP v2 as the routing protocol.
It enables the use of VLSM.
It specifies the fastest path to the destination route.
* It specifies which interfaces will exchange RIP routing updates.
It activates RIP for all routes that exist within the enterprise network.
15. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
* the shortage of IP addresses
the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP
16. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
* utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system
17. A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks. Using VLSM, the last subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks. What bit mask must be used to create eight smaller subnetworks, each having two usable host addresses?
/26
/27
/28
/29
* /30
/31
18. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.16/26
192.1.1.96/28
192.1.1.160/28
192.1.1.196/27
* 192.1.1.224/28
192.1.1.240/28
19. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
* The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
20. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
192.1.1.128/25
192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
192.1.1.0/24
* 192.1.1.0/25
192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24
Chap 2
1. Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on RouterA?
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1
* RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.254.0 area 0
2. How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
* It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
* It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.
3. Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
router# show ospf serial 0
router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
router# show ip interface serial 0
* router# show ip ospf interface serial 0
4. Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a clear text password of apollo?
Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
* Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo
5. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the network?
RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
* There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.
6. Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0
* RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route
7. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
* OSPF interval timers mismatch
gateway of last resort not redistributed
* interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch
* inconsistent authentication configuration
8. In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
point-to-point
point-to-multipoint
* broadcast multiaccess
* nonbroadcast multiaccess
9. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
root router
backup root router
domain router
backup domain router
* designated router
* backup designated router
10. What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
link-state age intervals
* timer intervals
* router ID number
link-state update intervals
* neighbor adjacencies
11. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
* network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
* wildcard mask
* area ID
12. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
* updates triggered by network changes
updates sent at regular intervals
updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
updates that include complete routing tables
13. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
* Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.
14. Which router is the root of an SPF tree?
border router
nearest neighboring router
* local router
trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm
15. Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)
* Link-state protocols require careful network design.
Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
* Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
* Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.
Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.
16. What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks? (Choose three.)
* reduction of routing overhead
increased routing overhead
* faster convergence
slower convergence
distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
* isolation of network instability to one area of the network
17. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
* Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
18. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
* bandwidth
bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliablity
19. What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
* Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
* HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
* Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.
20. The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2, which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the 192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)
R1 will be the DR
R1 will be the BDR
* R2 will be the DR
R2 will be the BDR
R3 will be the DR
* R3 will be the BDR
Chap 3
1. What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?
70
* 90
100
110
120
255
2. Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)
routes installed by DUAL
lowest calculated metric to each destination
* network layer address of the neighbor routers
* number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent
feasible distance to each neighbor
3. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
* routing
* topology
neighbor
path
shortest path
4. Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)
* A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.
* The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual bandwidth of the link.
Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of buffer overflow.
The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate properly.
Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.
5. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
* the routing protocol
* the feasible distance of the route
the highest cost of the route
the SRTT value for the route
* the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
the physical address of the gateway interface
6. Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?
Router# show ip route
* Router# show ip route eigrp
Router# show eigrp route
Router# show eigrp protocol
7. Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?
show
list
* debug
terminal monitor
8. Which router command will enable IGRP with an autonomous system number of 100?
router(config)# igrp 100
router(config)# router 100
* router(config)# router igrp 100
router(config)# router igrp
9. What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)
adjacency table
* topology table
* neighbor table
* routing table
link state table
ARP table
10. What must be configured for IGRP and EIGRP to automatically share and redistribute information?
identical maximum hop limits
load balancing
* identical autonomous system numbers
automatic protocol redistribution
11. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
* Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.
12. What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?
backup route
default route
* feasible successor route
gateway
secondary route
successor route
13. Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
DUAL
IP
PDM
* RTP
TCP
UDP
14. What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)
Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.
* New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.
A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.
* A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.
* Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.
Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.
15. Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?
router# show ospf neighbor
router# debug neighbor events
router# debug ip ospf neighbor
* router# show ip ospf neighbor
16. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
* routes learned from other routing protocols
routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
* EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
all passive routes in the routing table
17. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
R1(config-router)# auto-summary
* R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
* R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# auto-summary
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64
18. If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how does DUAL flag the route that has failed?
recomputed
passive
* active
down
unreachable
successor
19. Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?
show ip eigrp interfaces detail
show ip eigrp traffic
show ip eigrp neighbors
* show ip eigrp topology all-links
20. One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which of the following statements are true about this network? (Choose two.)
IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.
The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.
* The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.
* The routers in the EIGRP network use a 32-bit metric and the IGRP routers use a 24-bit metric.
The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP AS number.
Chap 4
1. Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of errors?
cut-through
adaptive fast-forward
fragment-free
* adaptive cut-through
2. Which of the following is used to build a switching table?
source IP addresses
destination IP addresses
destination MAC addresses
* source MAC addresses
3. How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)
* The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is discarded.
* If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is flooded out all other interfaces.
* If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded out the associated interface.
If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to all ports.
4. What does switch latency describe?
forwarding method used by a switch
time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
improvement in network performance from using a switch
* time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch
5. Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)
It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
* It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client interfaces.
* It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.
It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth interface.
It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.
* It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.
6. Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose two.)
* They increase the number of collision domains.
They decrease the number of collision domains.
They increase the number of broadcast domains.
They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
* They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.
7. Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)
* Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
They create separate collision domains.
* Signals are distributed through all ports.
Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
* Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.
8. Hubs are concerned with which PDU?
* bits
frames
packets
datagrams
9. Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
* destination MAC address
Layer 4-7 protocol address
10. Which form of buffering is used by bridges?
cut-through
fragment-free
fast-forward
* store-and-forward
11. Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?
ROM
* CAM
Flash
SIMM
NRAM
12. Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
* Frames are processed through a single queue.
* All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.
Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.
13. Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
11:11:11:11
FF:FF:FF:FF
* FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
14. Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a switch that is using fast-forward mode?
A
B
* C
D
E
F
15. Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is using store-and-forward mode?
A
B
C
D
E
* F
16. What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)
improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
* segmenting broadcast domains
* forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
* segmenting collision domains
forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses
17. Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
to create fewer collision domains
* to enhance user bandwidth
to create more broadcast domains
to eliminate virtual circuits
* to isolate traffic between segments
to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network
18. Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?
Switching occurs in software.
* Switching occurs in hardware.
Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
Switches segment LANs.
19. What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
preventing broadcasts
* increasing available bandwidth per user
* decreasing the size of collision domains
* isolating traffic among segments
routing traffic between different networks
decreasing the number of broadcast domains
20. Which device provides segmentation within a single network?
hub
server
* switch
transceiver
Chap 5
1. Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)
* adaptability
* manageability
operability
* scalability
stability
2. When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?
Layer 1
* Layer 2
Layer 4
Layer 7
3. Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)
* throughput
* response time
workstation speed
* access to resources
desktop applications
4. What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?
patch cables of variable lengths
horizontal cross-connect cabling
* vertical cross-connect cabling
parallel cross-connect cabling
5. Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
inter-VLAN routing
* Layer 2 filtering
Layer 3 filtering
* microsegmentation
bandwidth security
6. A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)
access
* data link
* network
internet
transport
7. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone?
access
distribution
network
* core
workgroup
WAN
8. At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
application
* access
distribution
network
core
9. Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?
application
access
* distribution
network
core
10. Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
* redundant paths
high-level policy enforcement
packet manipulation
media transitions
* rapid forwarding of traffic
* no packet filtering
11. What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?
filtering of core switching errors
* preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks
12. A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
* functionality
sustainability
adaptability
manageability
scalability
13. To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
sustainability
reliability
manageability
* adaptability
functionality
* scalability
14. What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
replacing hubs with switches
* segmenting the network by installing a router
* creating VLANs for each workgroup
adding additional hubs to the local area network
replacing routers with LAN switches
adding bridges to connect different workgroups
15. Where should DNS and email servers be located?
IDF
* MDF
HCC
VCC
POP
16. Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?
FDDI
* Ethernet
Wireless
Token Ring
17. VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
* A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.
18. A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
multi-port gigabit switches
* switches running VLANs
managed smart hubs
19. Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
* hubs
bridges
* switches
routers
20. Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?
Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
* Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.
Chap 6
1. A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured? (Choose three.)
* The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their NICs.
The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.
* All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.
Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.
* All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.
All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.
2. How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network? (Choose three.)
* Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.
Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.
* Unused ports can be shutdown.
Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.
Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.
* Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a port to access the network.
3. An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which commands can the technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
* Switch# show port security
Switch# show version
Switch# show startup-config
* Switch# clear mac-address-table
Switch# reload
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
4. After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What can the technician assume? (Choose two.)
The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.
The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.
* The POST has failed.
The boot sequence is in process.
* A fatal error has occurred.
The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.
5. Which switch command mode should always be password protected?
User Command
User Config
User EXEC
User Privileged
* Privileged EXEC
6. Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?
a crossover cable
a patch cable
* a rollover cable
a straight-thru cable
7. Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)
flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin
running-config
VLAN.bin
* startup-config
c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat
* VLAN.dat
8. A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?
delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS
* deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network
remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the switch
delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch
configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode
9. Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)
* Ctrl+z
disable
* end
* exit
logout
10. Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade procedure?
HTTP
Telnet
* TFTP
TTY
IOS
11. A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a backup of the switch IOS image on the server?
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy running-config tftp
* Switch# copy flash tftp
Switch# copy IOS tftp
Switch# copy tftp flash
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
12. What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900 series switch?
Rename the Flash file.
Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.
* Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.
Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.
Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.
13. What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?
RPS
bootstrap
* power-on self test
system STAT
pre-boot
14. What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?
* amber
green
red
white
off
15. Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)
copy a configuration from a FTP server
* type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode
* enter the System Configuration dialog
Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file
connect to the switch using a web browser
16. An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of arguments available in the syntax for this command?
Switch# c?
Switch# c ?
Switch# configure?
* Switch# configure ?
17. From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?
config
user EXEC
* privileged EXEC
command EXEC
flash
18. Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?
* The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.
The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.
The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.
Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.
The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.
19. How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has been turned off or moved to another device?
30 seconds
180 seconds
* 300 seconds
30 minutes
20. When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol indicates that the image was copied successfully?
e
*
* !
s
#
Chap 7
1. Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?
* Spanning Tree
Shortest Path First
Dykstra
Rapid Tree
Bellman-Ford
2. What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
* one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
* one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network
3. How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?
every second
* every two seconds
every three seconds
every four seconds
4. Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)
* blocking
* learning
converging
* listening
switching
5. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
* learning
disabling
listening
forwarding
6. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
* forwarding
7. Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose three.)
* broadcast storms
corrupted ARP tables
duplicate MAC addresses
inaccurate routing tables
* multiple copies of Ethernet frames
* MAC address table instability
8. Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?
* a broadcast storm
multicast errors
ARP table errors
MAC address instability
redundant unicast frame forwarding
9. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
* election of the root bridge
determination of the designated port for each segment
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
activation of the root port for each segment
10. Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
memory size
* bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
* base MAC address
switch location
11. How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
* to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
* to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
to activate looped paths throughout the network
12. Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1 prepares to transmit its data to host2?
Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.
* All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.
Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.
Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.
A broadcast storm will occur.
13. What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)
* User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.
The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.
All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.
* A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.
User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.
14. Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
* They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
* They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.
15. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure the switch as the static root bridge.
Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
* Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
16. What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?
Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.
* The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.
Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.
Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.
17. What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
* shared
end-to-end
* edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
* point-to-point
18. Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and edge type links to go to the forwarding state?
in 15 seconds
never
* immediately
in 30 seconds
after 90 seconds
19. How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
2 seconds
15 seconds
20 seconds
* 50 seconds
20. Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
* Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.
21. How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?
It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.
It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.
It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.
* It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.
It is dropped and not sent to any address.
22. What is meant by "five nines" network uptime?
A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.
* A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.
There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.
Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.
Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.
23. What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)
* the max-age timer
* the listening forward delay
the spanning-tree hold down timer
* the learning forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay
Chap 8
1. Which of the following states the 80/20 rule of end-to-end VLANs?
80% of network resources should be remote and 20% should be on the local VLAN.
80% of VLANs should be static and the remaining 20% should be dynamic.
* 80% of network traffic should be local and 20% remote.
80% of the network sources should be centralized at the core layer and the remaining 20% at the distribution layer.
80% of traffic should be routed and 20% should be switched.
2. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
* They become inactive.
They default back to the management VLAN.
They automatically become a part of VLAN1.
They must be assigned to another VLAN before the original VLAN can be deleted.
They remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.
3. A network administrator has just finished configuring a switch with multiple VLANs. A workstation on VLAN2 cannot communicate with a workstation on VLAN3. What needs to be done to correct this problem?
* The traffic needs to be routed between the two VLANs.
The hosts must be reconfigured to be on the same logical network.
The VLANs need to be configured to be on the same broadcast domain.
The switch must be configured to share VLAN traffic.
4. A network administrator has configured a switch with VLANs. Hosts will join the VLANs based on their MAC or IP address. What type of VLANs have been configured on the switch?
* dynamic
database
multiple
port-based
5. Which of the following describe networks in which the use of static VLANs is appropriate? (Choose three.)
* Workstations, departments, and network resources are seldom moved.
VLAN port membership frequently changes.
* Robust VLAN management software is available to the network administrator.
* The overhead required to manage VLAN MAC address and custom filtering tables is not desirable.
VLANs are often added, deleted, and modified.
6. A network administrator has configured a switch with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. Port 10 is to be assigned to VLAN3. Which of the following commands are needed to assign port 10 to VLAN3? (Choose three.)
Switch_1(config)# switchport interface fastethernet 0/10
* Switch_1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access
* Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
* Switch_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/10
Switch_1# vlan database
7. What needs to be done when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose three.)
* Enter database configuration mode.
Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
* Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
* Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.
Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.
Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.
8. If two 12-port hubs are connected to a switch that has three VLANs configured, how many bridging tables will the switch maintain?
1
2
* 3
12
36
9. Which of the following are methods of establishing VLAN membership? (Choose three.)
* logical addresses
* physical addresses
ISL addresses
* switch port attachment
hardware platform
traffic pattern
10. Which approach to assigning VLAN membership maximizes forwarding performance?
membership by MAC address
membership by logical address
membership by protocol
* membership by port
membership by operating system
11. If a switch connects 12 collision domains and is configured with three VLANs, how many broadcast domains does it have?
1
* 3
4
12
12. How does a bridge handle the frames that it receives? (Choose three.)
If the source is unknown, the source port is shutdown.
If the source port of a frame is unknown, a bridge will issue an ARP request.
* If the destination is on another segment, the bridge forwards the frame only to the correct interface.
A bridge forwards frames for unknown destinations to the default gateway.
* If the destination port is unknown, a bridge will flood the frame to all ports in the broadcast domain, except for the source port.
* If the destination of the frame is on the same segment as the source, a bridge will not forward the frame.
13. A network administrator is attempting to configure routing between VLANs over a trunked link. A trunk link cannot be established between a switch and a router. Which of the following are possible sources of this problem? (Choose two.)
* The router IOS does not support trunking.
The port is connected and is not receiving alignment and FCS errors.
* The switch duplex and speed are not set properly.
The router and switch are running different versions of STP.
The switch IP address is incorrectly configured.
14. Which of the following statements are true regarding a root bridge in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
* The root bridge timers control BPDU traffic on the network.
Only the show commands on the switch can display root bridge information.
* It is the central point of a spanning tree topology.
Storm control is enabled by default.
VLANs cannot be trunked between switches until the root bridge has been elected.
15. Switch-A and Switch-B are both configured with ports in the Marketing, Sales, Accounting, and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 12 users. How many different subnetworks will be needed to enable routed connectivity between the VLANs?
1
* 4
12
48
16. Which factors influence the number of VLANs that may be required on a switch? (Choose three.)
the physical addressing scheme
* traffic patterns in the network
* types of applications in use
the adaptability of the network
* workgroup functions and commonality
the tagging option used for VLAN identification
17. What is true of the method by which VLAN membership is identified in Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)
* The frame header is in its original format when it reaches the endpoint device.
The VLAN membership of frames does not need to be identified unless ISL is in use.
* The Ethernet frame is encapsulated or modified with the VLAN ID information.
The VLAN ID is removed by the endpoint device upon delivery of the frame.
18. What does a switch do when it receives a frame and the source address is unknown?
The switch will discard the frame.
The switch will request the sender resend the frame.
* The switch will map the source address to the port on which it was received.
The switch will flood the frame to all attached devices.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
19. Which of the following commands will assign switch port 0/9 to VLAN3?
* Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
Switch(config-if)# switchport vlan 3
Switch(config-if)# switchport access 3
Switch(vlan)# switchport 0/9
Switch(vlan)# access switchport 0/9
20. Which of the following commands are used to verify VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
* Switch# show vlan id id_number
* Switch# show vlan
Switch# show config vlan id_number
Switch# show vlan config id_number
Switch# show interface vlan id_number
21. VLAN 10 needs to be removed from a switch. Which command must the administrator enter in order to accomplish this task?
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# erase switchport access vlan 10
* Switch(vlan)# no vlan 10
Switch(vlan)# no vlan database 10
22. How does the use of VLANs benefit an organization? (Choose two.)
by centralizing departmental staff and network resources together in a single physical area
* by allowing organizational flexibility by grouping users together by function instead of physical location
* by simplifying the task of adding and moving network resources and users in a growing organization
by reducing the number of broadcast domains in an enterprise network
by eliminating the need for routing traffic in large networks
by reducing network management costs by replacing many Layer 2 devices with a few Layer 3 devices
23. Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host A on VLAN1 has sent a message requesting the MAC address of its default gateway. Which of the following network hosts will process this message?
The message will be seen by the hosts on VLAN1 and VLAN2.
The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to Switch1.
The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1.
* The message will be seen by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1 and Switch2.
The message will only be seen by router interface e0.
24. What are the characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose three.)
* CDP messages are only sent on VLAN1.
VLAN1 is reserved for links between switches.
* All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
VLAN1 must be created before ports can be assigned to it.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
* An IP address configured on the switch will only apply to ports on VLAN1.
Chap 9
1. What information does frame tagging add to each frame to allow delivery of frames across a switched trunk?
the destination MAC address
the switch MAC address
* the VLAN ID
the BID
2. By default, to which VLAN does a trunked link belong?
the first VLAN defined
the last VLAN defined
* all VLANs
the lowest number VLAN
3. Refer to the graphic. What are some advantages of replacing the individual VLAN links between Switch1 and Switch2 with a single trunk line? (Choose three.)
* It would free 2 switch ports on each switch.
It would free 3 switch ports on each switch.
* It would save 2 cabling runs.
It would save 3 cabling runs.
It would provide three times the bandwidth of the individual links.
* It would allow adding more VLANs without requiring more cabling or switch ports.
4. Which of the following are benefits of using VTP? (Choose three.)
* configuration consistency across an administration domain
* reduced complexity of managing and monitoring VLAN networks
reduced latency for forwarding broadcast frames
* ability to trunk over mixed media networks
increased convergence ability
enhanced VLAN isolation
5. How do devices on VLANs communicate? (Choose two.)
Devices on different VLANs communicate through VTP.
* Devices on different VLANs communicate through routers.
Devices on different VLANs communicate over a trunk link between switches.
Devices on the same VLAN communicate through a router.
* Devices on the same VLAN communicate through Layer 2 switches.
6. Which statements describe the network design shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
* This design will not scale easily.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
* Devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
* This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
7. Which devices can be connected to a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
* a switch
a hub
* a router
* a server with a special NIC
a CSU/DSU
a repeater
8. Which of the following statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
* Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
* Transparent mode switches pass VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches send out updates informing other switches about changes in the status of their VLANs.
9. Select the items that describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
can add VLANs of local significance only
* can only adopt VLAN management changes
can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can add VLANs to domain
* cannot add VLANs
10. The switches in the diagram are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
* VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
11. If trunking were not used in the network shown in the graphic, how many links would be required to carry the traffic for all the VLANs between the switches?
1
2
* 3
4
12. Host A sends a frame to host B over the network shown in the graphic. Each link has been labeled with a letter. On which links along the path between hosts A and B will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
* C, E
A, C, E
C, E, F
A, C, D, E
A, B, C, D, E
A, B, C, D, E, F, G
13. A switch in a VTP domain sends an advertisement request. What will be the response?
A configuration status reply will be issued from the closest client switch.
A three-way handshake will establish a configuration session with the VTP server.
* Summary and subset advertisements will be sent by the VTP server.
The configuration version number will be set to zero and all switches in the domain will issue advertisements regarding the state of their VLANs.
14. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
* It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.
15. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Router RA is attached to the VTP trunk and configured as shown in the output contained in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.1 /26
192.168.1.11 /28
* 192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the graphic. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in client mode.
* Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
Switch2 is in server mode.
* Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has no VLANs.
17. What can cause a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement? (Choose two.)
* A new client switch has been added to the management domain.
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
* A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.
18. A router has two serial interfaces and two FastEthernet interfaces. It needs to connect to a wide area link to the main office and to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient manner?
* Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to a router FastEthernet interface and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Two additional FastEthernet interfaces are required to interconnect the VLANs.
Use serial to FastEthernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the router. Attach the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
19. A switch is configured with the commands shown in the diagram. Host1 is connected to port 0/4 with an IP address of 192.168.1.22/28. Host2 is connected to port 0/5 with an IP address of 192.168.1.33/28. Host3 is connected to port 0/6 with an IP address of 192.168.1.30/28. Select the statements that describe the success of pinging from one host to another. (Choose three.)
Host1 can ping Host2.
* Host1 cannot ping Host2.
* Host1 can ping Host3.
Host1 cannot ping Host3.
Host2 can ping Host3.
* Host2 cannot ping Host3.
20. What should be done before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
* Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
* Select the correct VTP mode and version.
* Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
21. The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate?
No VTP domain has been configured.
A router is needed to forward traffic between the VLANs.
The switch does not have an entry in its CAM table for Host2.
* The host IP configurations are on different networks.
The ports on each VLAN must be grouped together on the switch.
22. A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
* The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
Final FormD-1a
1. Refer to the graphic. The network has converged. Network traffic analysis indicates that switch A should be the STP root bridge. However, switch F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. The switches are all set to the default spanning-tree bridge priority value. How can the network administrator change the root bridge to switch A?
* Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 1.
Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 65,565.
Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 255.
Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 32,768.
2. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
* when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces
3. Refer to the output in the exhibit. What is true about the configuration of this switch?
Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.
VTP has been enabled for all ports.
* ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on the PROD VLAN.
Hosts in the ACCT and ENGR VLANs must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order to exchange data between VLANs.
4. Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router REMO_2 has been elected DR, but router REMO_1 is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure REMO_1 to force it to be elected as DR?
REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0REMO_1(config-if)# ospf priority 0
REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
* REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
REMO_1(config)# ospf priority 1
REMO_1(config)# ip ospf priority 255
5. What are three attributes of distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three.)
Hello packets are used to form neighbor adjacencies.
* Each router sends its entire routing table in routing updates.
* Periodic updates are sent to neighboring routers.
Distance vector protocols converge more rapidly than link-state protocols do.
* Because of their frequent periodic updates, distance vector protocols after convergence use more bandwidth than link-state protocols do.
Distance vector protocols are less prone to routing loops than are link-state protocols.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.)
* R1 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
R2 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
* R1 will be DR of the 192.168.5.0/24 network.
R4 will be DR of the 192.168.5.0/24 network.
R1 will be DR of the 192.168.6.0/24 network.
* R3 will be DR of the 192.168.6.0/24 network.
7. The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on SW_1. The administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch SW_2. What must be done so that the administrator can access SW_2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
Set the password on the management VLAN.
* Establish connectivity of the host to SW_2.
* Configure IP addressing parameters on SW_2.
Configure the hostname on SW_2.
* Activate the HTTP service on SW_2.
8. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
* RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
* A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
* The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands should be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
R_1(config)# interface vlan 30 R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40 R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R_1(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 30 40 R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config)# interface vlan 30 R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.30.1 255.255.255.0 R_1(config-if)# no shutdown R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40 R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.40.1 255.255.255.0 R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
* R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R_1(config-if)# no shutdown R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3 R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 30 R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.30.1 255.255.255.0 R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.4 R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 40 R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.40.1 255.255.255.0
10. Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)
* They can support multiple routed protocols.
They can support only link-state protocols.
They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
* They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
* They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across the different switches?
* trunking
STP
VTP
routing
12. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
* X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
13. What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
elect a designated switch
use a router to locate a default gateway
* elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch
14. Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?
highest Layer 2 address
highest priority number
highest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address
* lowest priority number
lowest path cost
15. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
* It is the metric, which is cost.
It is the administrative distance.
16. Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
* Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.
17. Refer to the graphic. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router RT-5?
192.168.0.0/16
192.168.52.0/24
192.168.48.0/22
* 192.168.52.0/22
192.168.51.0/23
192.168.48.0/21
18. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLANs can only be deleted by the user who created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
* VLAN 1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switch, how many broadcast domains are there?
* one
two
three
four
five
six
20. What are two advantages of adding switches to a network that has no VLANs configured? (Choose two.)
* Switches help eliminate collision domains.
Switches create permanent virtual communication circuits.
* Switches allow bandwidth to be fully utilized.
Switches decrease network throughput.
Switches shrink the size of broadcast domains.
21. Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the Branch1 site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Central office. Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Central LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 192.168.10.238/24?
Branch1# dial Central 192.168.10.238
Branch1(config)# line vty 0 4Branch1(config-line)# telnet
Branch1# telnet Central
* Branch1# telnet 192.168.10.238
22. Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
requires a minimum of two wires
* reduces the number of collisions
allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
* allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
increases the number of broadcast domains
23. The following command was added to a router configuration: ip route 198.19.150.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.249 What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)
* It will create a static route to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 192.0.2.249 as the next hop.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
* Information about the 198.19.150.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as this configuration command is in effect.
The route will be marked with an "R" in the routing table.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
* switch F
25. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from RT-2 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.0.2.0/27?
RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
* RT-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
RT-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
26. Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will correctly configure router ABC to use OSPF?
ABC(config)# router ospf 99 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 255.255.255.224 area 0 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 255.255.255.248 area 0
* ABC(config)# router ospf 1 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.31 area 0 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
ABC(config)# router ospf 1 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
ABC(config)# router ospf 0 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.31 area 0 ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
27. Refer to the exhibit. Routers RT-1 and RT-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?
* RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.63 area 0
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3 RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192
28. Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
physical
distribution
data link
* access
core
29. Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
physical
data link
core
access
network
* distribution
30. A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?
add additional hubs
* replace hubs with switches
replace hubs with access points
add a router to every hub segment
31. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table?
ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
* ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
32. Refer to the exhibit. If the network is running RIP v2, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between RTR-2 and the two other routers?
* 198.19.23.192/30 and 198.19.23.196/30
198.19.23.160/30 and 198.19.23.164/30
198.19.23.96/30 and 198.19.23.100/30
198.19.23.32/30 and 198.19.23.160/30
198.19.23.4/30 and 198.19.23.8/30
33. Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
access
backbone
* distribution
core
34. Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?
The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
* The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
The router is not configured for trunking.
The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.
35. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
* It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
* It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
36. Refer to the exhibit. How should an administrator configure the ports on switches ACC-1 and ACC-2 to allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate across the two switches?
* as trunks
as access ports
as channels
as inter-VLAN ports
as bridge ports
37. What does a constant green SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
* The switch has passed POST and is working properly
The switch has failed POST.
The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
The switch is going through POST.
The switch is actively sending and receiving frames.
38. What is the value of using the authentication feature that is available for OSPF information exchanges? (Choose two.)
* It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router.
It assures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates.
It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.
It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.
* It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit.
39. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to information received in updates
* by exchanging of hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
40. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/2 for host A?
SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access 20
* SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 20
SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2SW-1(config-if)# vlan 20
SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
41. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
* The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
42. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?
It maximizes the number of ports available for hosts.
* It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure.
It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network.
It allows Spanning Tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously.
43. Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?
cut-through
fast-forward
fragment-free
* store-and-forward
44. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
A gateway of last resort is required.
Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
* VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
45. Refer to the network and user requirements in the exhibit. The company has obtained one Class C network address. Which IP addressing plan will correctly utilize VLSM to provide maximum efficiency in the use of the IP addresses?
192.168.1.0/26 for the 61 users 192.168.1.64/27 for the 28 users 192.168.1.176/27 for the 14 users 192.168.1.192/30 for one serial link 192.168.1.194/30 for the other serial link
* 192.168.1.0/26 for the 61 users 192.168.1.64/27 for the 28 users 192.168.1.96/28 for the 14 users 192.168.1.112/30 for one serial link 192.168.1.116/30 for the other serial link
192.168.1.0/26 for the 61 users 192.168.1.64/27 for the 28 users 192.168.1.96/27 for the 14 users 192.168.1.112/30 for one serial link 192.168.1.116/30 for the other serial link
192.168.1.0/26 for the 61 users 192.168.1.64/26 for the 28 users 192.168.1.96/27 for the 14 users 192.168.1.112/30 for one serial link 192.168.1.116/30 for the other serial link
46. Which characteristics of RIPv1 are different from RIPv2? (Choose three.)
its use of the hop count metric
* its use of broadcast updates
its use of split horizon as a stability feature
* the authentication of updates
* its exclusively classful routing
its hop count maximum of 15
Final FormD-2a
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network has converged and Switch_6 has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. However, network traffic analysis indicates that Switch_1 would be a better root bridge. How can the network administrator make this change, assuming that the spanning-tree priorities are at the default settings?
Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 32,768.
Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 65,565.
* Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 1.
Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 255.
2. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
* when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces
3. Refer to the output in the exhibit. What can be determined from the information shown?
VTP has been enabled for all ports.
Hosts in VLAN11 and VLAN22 must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order for them to exchange data.
Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.
* ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on VLAN33.
4. Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router R2 has been elected DR, but router R1 is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure R1 to force it to be elected as DR?
R1(config)# ospf priority 1
R1(config)# ip ospf priority 255
R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0R1(config-if)# ospf priority 0
R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
* R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
5. Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.
Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.
* Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.
* Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.
After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.
* Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.)
* CTL will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network.
ID3 will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network.
* CTL will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network.
ID1 will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network.
* CTL will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network.
ID2 will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network.
7. The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on ACC-1. The administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch ACC-3. What must be done so that the administrator can access ACC-3 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
* Establish the Layer 3 connectivity of the host to ACC-3.
Set the password on the management VLAN.
Configure the hostname on ACC-3.
* Activate the HTTP service on ACC-3.
* Configure IP addressing parameters on ACC-3.
8. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
* RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
* A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
* The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.
9. Multiple routers have been configured with EIGRP as the routing protocol for use in the corporate network. What is true of the operation of this network? (Choose three.)
Only link-state protocols will run in the network.
* Routing information in the form of partial updates will be sent in response to topology changes.
* The network can support multiple routed protocols.
* Hello packets are used to discover and verify the status of neighboring routers.
Routing updates are broadcast to all other routers in the network.
Routing updates that consist of entire routing tables are sent to neighboring routers.
10. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
interface vlan 2ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0no shutdowninterface vlan 3ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown
* interface fastethernet 0/0no shutdowninterface fastethernet 0/0.2encapsulation dot1q 2ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0interface fastethernet 0/0.3encapsulation dot1q 3ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
interface vlan 2switchport mode trunk dot1qinterface vlan 3switchport mode trunk dot11
interface fastethernet 0/0mode trunk dot1q 2 3ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
11. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for the Sales and Marketing VLANs as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across different switches?
STP
VTP
routing
* trunking
12. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch SW-A with a default gateway. Assuming the switch IP address is 192.168.120.12/24, what command string will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
SW-A(config)# ip gateway 192.168.120.1
SW-A(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.120.255
SW-A(config)# ip route 192.168.120.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
SW-A(config)# ip default-route 192.168.120.254
* SW-A(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.120.254
13. What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
elect a designated switch
use a router to locate a default gateway
* elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch
14. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in a spanning-tree network?
highest path cost
highest priority number
highest Layer 2 address
* lowest priority number
lowest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address
15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value of 64 shown in the routing table?
It is the administrative distance.
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates how many hops are in the network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
* It is the metric, which is cost.
16. Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
* Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.
17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
198.18.0.0/16
* 198.18.48.0/21
198.18.32.0/22
198.18.48.0/23
198.18.49.0/23
198.18.52.0/22
18. A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?
VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.
VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.
* VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
19. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there in the topology shown, assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switches?
one
* two
three
four
six
eight
20. What are two of the benefits that switches provide to a network without VLANs configured? (Choose two.)
They allow creation of permanent virtual circuits.
They decrease network throughput.
They shrink the size of broadcast domains.
* They help eliminate collision domains.
* They allow existing bandwidth to be more efficiently utilized.
21. Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the Headquarters site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Pacific office. Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Pacific LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 198.19.27.251/24?
Headquarters# telnet Pacific
Headquarters# dial Pacific 198.19.27.251
Headquarters(config)# line vty 0 4Headquarters(config-line)# telnet Pacific
* Headquarters# telnet 198.19.27.251
22. Which three statements describe full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* It utilizes 100% of the bandwidth in both directions.
It requires two wires.
It increases the number of broadcast domains in the network.
* It allows data to be received and sent simultaneously.
* It reduces the number of collisions.
It provides between 60% and 80% of the bandwidth in both directions.
23. The following command was added to a router configuration: ip route 172.26.153.0 255.255.255.0 198.19.27.249 What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)
It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 198.19.27.249 as the next hop.
The route will be marked with an "C" in the routing table.
* It will create a static route to the 172.26.153.0/24 network.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 172.26.153.0/24 network.
* Routes to network 172.26.153.0 that are learned dynamically will not be used to route packets as long as this configuration command is in effect.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge, if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
Switch_1
Switch_2
Switch_3
Switch_4
* Switch_5
Switch_6
25. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from Corp_1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.168.1.0/24?
* Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
26. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct OSPF configuration for router RT-1?
RT-1(config)# router ospf 1 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.63 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
RT-1(config)# router ospf 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.31 area 0
* RT-1(config)# router ospf 1 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.31 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
RT-1(config)# router ospf 99 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 255.255.255.224 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 255.255.255.248 area 0
27. Refer to the exhibit. Router LC-1 needs to be configured to provide communication between the networks shown. Which group of commands will configure EIGRP on LC-1 to work within this network?
LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.63 area 0
LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
* LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0
LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192
28. Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
physical
distribution
data link
* access
core
29. Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
physical
data link
core
access
network
* distribution
30. Performance of the network shown in the exhibit has become poor since the addition of hosts to the network. The network administrator suspects that excessive collisions are causing this problem. If the network is using hubs, what should be done to reduce the collisions?
Add a router to every hub segment.
Replace hubs with access points.
* Replace hubs with switches.
Add additional hubs.
31. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table?
ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
* ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
32. Refer to the exhibit. If the exhibited network is running EIGRP, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between LC-1 and the other routers?
192.168.43.4/30 and 192.168.43.8/30
192.168.43.32/30 and 192.168.43.160/30
192.168.43.96/30 and 192.168.43.100/30
192.168.43.160/30 and 192.168.43.164/30
* 192.168.43.192/30 and 192.168.43.196/30
33. Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
access
backbone
* distribution
core
34. Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?
The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
* The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
The router is not configured for trunking.
The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.
35. Which two statements describe the Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
It can only be used in networks in which routers are installed.
It can only be used in networks in which both routers and switches are used.
* It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
* It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
36. Refer to the exhibit. The link between switches SW-A and SW-B needs to provide connectivity between hosts on the same VLAN across the two switches. How should these ports be configured?
as data channel ports
as access ports
* as trunking ports
as root ports
as inter-VLAN ports
37. What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
The switch is going through POST.
The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
* The switch has failed POST.
The switch has passed POST and is working properly.
38. Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)
* to prevent routing information from being falsified
to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead
to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates
to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing
* to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source
39. What do EIGRP routers use to establish and maintain adjacency relationships with neighboring routers?
the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers
* the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers
the learning of new routes from neighbors
the comparison of known routes to information received in updates
the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers
40. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/11 for host A?
SW-A(config)# interface fastethernet 0/11 SW-A(config-if)# vlan 11
SW-A(config)# interface vlan 11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SW-A(config)# interface vlan 11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access 11
* SW-A(config)# interface fastethernet 0/11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access SW-A(config-if)# switchport access vlan 11
41. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
* The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
42. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?
It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network.
It allows spanning tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously.
It maximizes the number of ports available for users.
* It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure.
43. Refer to exhibit. Routers Central and Remote are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The Central router can ping the Remote router serial interface and Remote can ping the serial interface of Central. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is the most likely problem?
A clock rate is missing from one of the serial interfaces.
A gateway of last resort is required.
Subnets cannot be used with RIPv1.
* VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
44. The network in the exhibit is to be configured using one Class C network address. Which IP addressing plan will correctly use VLSM to provide maximum efficiency in the use of the IP addresses while meeting the user requirements shown?
195.18.4.0/26 for the 59 users 195.18.4.64/26 for the 30 users 195.18.4.176/27 for the 11 users 195.18.4.112/30 for one serial link 195.18.4.116/30 for the other serial link
195.18.4.0/26 for the 59 users 195.18.4.64/26 for the 30 users 195.18.4.96/27 for the 11 users 195.18.4.112/30 for one serial link 195.18.4.116/30 for the other serial link
* 195.18.4.0/26 for the 59 users 195.18.4.64/27 for the 30 users 195.18.4.96/28 for the 11 users 195.18.4.112/30 for one serial link 195.18.4.116/30 for the other serial link
195.18.4.0/26 for the 59 users 195.18.4.64/27 for the 30 users 195.18.4.176/27 for the 11 users 195.18.4.192/30 for one serial link 195.18.4.194/30 for the other serial link
45. Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)
* hop count as a metric
classless routing
* use split horizon
* maximum hop count is 15
broadcast updates
no authentication
46. Which Ethernet switching mode has the least latency and lowest reliability?
* fast-forward
asymmetric
store-and-forward
fragment-free
symmetric
Practice
1. Which interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
* OSPF
RIP v1
* RIP v2
* EIGRP
BGP
IGRP
2. Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.)
* It does not support authentication.
* It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.
* It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments.
It does not support equal-cost load balancing.
3. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
* They both use hop count as a metric.
* They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
They both provide for authentication of update sources.
* They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.
4. Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router?
* router# show ip route
router# show route
router# show ip rip
router# show rip
router# show protocol
5. What is the purpose of a default route?
A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped.
* A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.
A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network.
A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface.
6. The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses?
1
2
* 4
6
8
16
7. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
/27
* /26
8. Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router?
XYZ(config)# router ospf
XYZ(config)# router ospf 0
* XYZ(config)# router ospf 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10
9. Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network?
administrative distance
* cost
hop count
link delay
10.
Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)
* Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.
* The interfaces are on different network types.
The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area.
Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out.
* Authentication passwords or keys are different.
11. Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router?
2
11
* 12
65
66
12. What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
designated routers
a backup designated router
* neighbor adjacencies
an NBMA network topology
links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network
13. Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
* collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network
view of network from neighbor's perspective
* independent calculation of best paths to all destinations
* propagation of incorrect information minimized
demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity
14. Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.)
LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis.
LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online.
* LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.
LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router.
* Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.
* LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.
15. Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning?
broadcast
loopback
* multicast
unicast
16. What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
* R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
* R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
* R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
17. If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement?
the route flagged as active in the topology table
* the feasible successor route in the topology table
the default gateway in the neighbor table
the primary designated route in the topology table
the backup designated router in the routing table
18. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
There is no activity on the route to that network.
* The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
19. Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes?
PDM
RTP
* DUAL
LSA
20. Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination?
routing table and topology table
neighbor table and routing table
* neighbor table and topology table
neighbor table and adjacency table
21. How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch?
2
3
* 4
7
8
10
22. How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.)
* allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously
decreases the number of broadcast domains
increases network latency
eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames
* reduces the size of collision domains
* increases the number of collision domains
23. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic?
* forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2
24. Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor?
transceiver
hub
MAU
* router
switch
25. Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.)
* Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF.
* Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
26. Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
* VLAN routing
MAC layer filtering
* security
microsegmentation
* packet filtering with access control lists
workgroup access
27. Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)
gateway
* access
* distribution
network
* core
domain
28. Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity?
adaptability
manageability
scalability
* functionality
29. What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers?
1 Mbps
10 Mbps
* 100 Mbps
1000 Mbps
1 Gbps
30. Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.)
multilayer routers
* multilayer switches
bridges
managed hubs
VLANs
* a switch with a router module
31. What affects network availability? (Choose three.)
location
* throughput
user proficiency
* response time
workstation speed
* access to resources
32. When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED?
no link
port is not forwarding
* port is sending or receiving data
port is sending, but not receiving
link fault
33. How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.)
* Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
* The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
34. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
* All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
* All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
* The flash directory contains the IOS image.
35. Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch?
Switch# copy startup-config tftp
* Switch# copy tftp startup-config
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy tftp flash
36. An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done?
The switch should be reconfigured.
* The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.
The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked.
The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked.
37. Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem?
The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch.
* VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.
The switch must be managed from the local LAN.
The switch hostname has not been set.
38. A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem?
* broadcast storms
routing loops
multiple frame copies
load balancing
unicast frame forwarding
39. A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently?
TTL
* STP
BID
BPDU
ARP
40. In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs?
* blocking
learning
disabled
listening
forwarding
41. Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.)
* Eliminate single points of failure.
Flood frames for unknown destinations.
Send multiple frames to an end device.
* Design alternate routes to a destination.
Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network.
Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination.
42. Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.)
discarding data traffic
* receiving data traffic
* forwarding data traffic
recalculating BPDUs
* receiving BPDUs
blocking BPDUs
43. Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
* Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
44. The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected?
* 1
3
5
one per trunk port
45. While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed?
The no vlan all command was entered.
The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered.
* The no vlan 1 command was entered.
The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode.
The no default vlan command was entered.
The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it.
46. A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device?
A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross.
A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol.
* A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.
No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs.
The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP.
47. Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network?
port-centric
static
* dynamic
geographic
48. Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.)
* Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.
Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts.
Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet.
* Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.
Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN.
49. Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
* multiple logical router interfaces
multiple physical router interfaces
one logical router interface
* one physical router interface
multiple logical networks defined for each VLAN
* one logical network defined for each VLAN
50. What does the router shown in the graphic provide to the network? (Choose three.)
* forwarding of packets between VLANs
forwarding of broadcast frames between VLANs
* improved efficiency in bandwidth utilization
* connectivity of local hosts with remote resources
elimination of VLAN configuration errors
prevention of switching loops
51. A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen?
Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations.
The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain.
* The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients.
The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain.
The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten.
52. A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
* The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
53. The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
* A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
* The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
* The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
54. What will prevent RIP v1 updates from being correctly advertised?
* the use of variable-length subnet masks
the use of multiple Layer 3 networks on the same router
variations in connection speeds on the links to a destination
increases in network load
a mismatch between the configured bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of a link
55. Which action can be set to occur in response to a port security violation on a switch port?
log-allow
return
* shutdown
poison
56. Which cables are used to connect the PCs and networking devices shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
* straight-through cable from the switches to the workstations
straight-through cable between the two switches
* straight-through cable from the router to the switches
crossover cable from the router to the switches
* crossover cable between the two switches
crossover cable from the switches to the workstations
57. Which of the following are characteristics of OSPF? (Choose three.)
* uses shortest path
easy to configure
* uses link-state advertisements
broadcasts frequent updates
slow to converge
* uses hello packets
Final
1. Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?
change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value
change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value
* change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value
change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value
2. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
* when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces
3. Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?
show vlan ifindex
show vlan id
* show vlan brief
show running-config
4. Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0
* RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1
RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
5. Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.
Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.
* Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.
* Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.
After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.
* Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.
6. Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)
RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
* RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
* RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
* RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.
RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.
7. The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
Configure the hostname on Switch2.
* Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.
Set the management VLAN password.
* Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.
* Establish host connectivity to Switch2.
8. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
* RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
* A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
* The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.
9. Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)
* They can support multiple routed protocols.
They can support only link-state protocols.
They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
* They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
* They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
10. One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?
IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.
The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.
* The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.
The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.
The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.
EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.
11. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
* interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11
interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
12. Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches are connected. Both switches have ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4. The hosts connected to VLAN 3 on SW-A need to communicate with the hosts on VLAN 3 on SW-B. Conversely, the hosts connected to VLAN 4 on SW-A need to communicate with hosts on VLAN 4 on SW-B. Which of the following is used on a Cisco Catalyst switch to provide this feature across a single link?
* IEEE 802.1Q
STP
CDP
VTP
13. Refer to the graphic. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the router’s IP address. A network administrator is using a laptop to console into SW2. What command will the administrator issue to assign a default gateway to the switch?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.10.1
* ip default-gateway 192.168.10.254
ip default-route 10.0.1.254
ip route 10.10.1.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
ip gateway 192.168.10.1
14. What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
elect a designated switch
use a router to locate a default gateway
* elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch
15. Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?
highest Layer 2 address
highest priority number
highest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address
* lowest priority number
lowest path cost
16. Refer to the graphic. Consider the routing table. What is the purpose of the 128 shown in the following line and bolded in the graphic:
O 192.168.12.236/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
* It is the OSPF metric, which is cost.
It is the OSPF administrative distance.
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates how many hops away the network is.
It is the value assigned to an interface that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the metric.
17. Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
* Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.
18. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following addresses is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to Router A?
192.168.4.0 /20
192.168.0.0 /16
192.168.4.0 /24
* 192.168.8.0 /22
192.168.8.0 /29
192.168.8.0 /30
19. A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?
VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.
* It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.
It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.
It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.
It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.
20. A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?
VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.
VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.
* VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
21. Refer to the graphic. Assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switch, how many broadcast domains are there?
* one
two
three
four
five
six
22. Which of the following are advantages to adding a switch to a network? (Choose two.)
Switches decrease the size of broadcast domains.
* Switches create collision-free domains.
Switches decrease network throughput.
Switches establish permanent virtual circuits for communications.
* Switches allow full allocation of bandwidth.
23. A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?
dial Corporate 172.16.15.5
line vty 0 4
telnet
telnet Corporate
* telnet 172.16.15.5
24. Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
requires a minimum of two wires
* reduces the number of collisions
allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
* allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
increases the number of broadcast domains
25. The following command was added to a router's configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)
A default route will be created.
* A static route will be created.
* Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.
The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.
26. Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?
* SC
CE
JB
JP
JN
cannot be determined from the information given
27. Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?
R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
* R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
28. Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?
B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192
B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0
B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
* B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
29. Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?
B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0
* B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
30. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?
Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.
* Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.
Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.
No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.
31. Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
physical
distribution
data link
* access
core
32. Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
physical
data link
core
access
network
* distribution
33. A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?
add additional hubs
* replace hubs with switches
replace hubs with access points
add a router to every hub segment
34. Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
* Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
35. Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?
192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30
192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30
192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30
192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30
* 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30
36. Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
access
backbone
* distribution
core
37. Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?
The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
* The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
The router is not configured for trunking.
The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.
38. Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
eliminates physical loops in network topologies
* eliminates logical loops in network topologies
can only be used in networks where routers are installed
* can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design
can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used
39. What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.
access
channel
interVLAN
intraVLAN
* trunk
40. What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
The switch is going through POST.
The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
* The switch has failed POST.
The switch has passed POST and is working properly.
41. Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)
* to prevent routing information from being falsified
to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead
to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates
to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing
* to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source
42. How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?
* by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to received updates
by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers
by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports
43. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?
* (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# switchport mode access
(config-if)# switchport access vlan 2
(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2
(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2
44. Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?
* The switch is sending and receiving frames.
The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.
The switch is participating in an election process.
The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.
45. What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?
* provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure
provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem
provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging
provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers
46. Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?
Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.
One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.
* VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.
47. Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links
200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links
* 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links
200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links
48. Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)
* hop count as a metric
classless routing
* use split horizon
* maximum hop count is 15
broadcast updates
no authentication
49. Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?
cut-through
fast-forward
fragment-free
* store-and-forward
50. Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?
switch
bridge
* router
active hub
Skill Review
1. Which IP addresses could be assigned to ports E0 and E1 of the London router?
* London E0 192.168.54.97 London E1 192.168.54.81
London E0 192.168.54.96 London E1 192.168.54.80
London E0 192.168.54.98 London E1 192.168.54.99
London E0 192.168.54.111 London E1 192.168.54.95
2. Which wildcard mask will allow a match of any address in the 172.16.32.0/20 subnetwork?
0.0.240.255
* 0.0.15.255
0.0.31.255
0.0.0.255
0.0.63.255
3. Which IP addresses could be assigned to ports E0 and E1 of the London router?
* London E0 192.168.54.97 London E1 192.168.54.81
London E0 192.168.54.96 London E1 192.168.54.80
London E0 192.168.54.98 London E1 192.168.54.99
London E0 192.168.54.111 London E1 192.168.54.95
4. What subnetwork does 192.168.43.152/27 belong to?
192.168.43.0
192.168.43.32
192.168.43.64
192.168.43.96
* 192.168.43.128
192.168.43.144
5. A router Ethernet port is assigned an IP address and subnet mask of 192.168.54.100 255.255.255.240. Which address could be assigned to a PC on this network?
192.168.54.0
192.168.54.1
192.168.54.96
* 192.168.54.103
1923168.54.111
6. Which Class B prefix will allow for 450 hosts per subnetwork with approximately 10% future growth?
/21
/22
* /23
/24
/25
7. Which attribute does a switch use to look up in its CAM table to make a forwarding decision?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
* destination MAC address
8. What is latency?
the reduction of signal energy during transmission from source to destination
the ability of a router to distribute traffic over all its network ports
* the time required to move a packet from source to destination
the duplication of devices so that in the event of a failure, redundant devices can perform the work
9. What role does a newly installed switch play in broadcast domains?
It segments broadcast domains on a per port basis.
* It forwards broadcasts but does not segment broadcast domains.
It filters and controls broadcasts at Layer 3.
It forwards packets between broadcast domains.
10. What command will verify a static route configuration?
show interface fa0/1
show controllers s0/0
* show ip route
show version
show hosts
show cdp neighbor
11. A network administrator needs to configure an access list that will only allow the management host with an IP address of 192.168.10.25/24 to access the router. Which group of commands will accomplish this task?
access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet access-list 101 deny ip any any int s0/0 ip access-group 101 in int f0/0 ip access-group 101 in
access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.25 eq telnet access-list 10 deny any line vty 0 4 access-group 10 in
* access-list 86 permit host 192.168.10.25 line vty 0 4 access-class 86 in
access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.10.25 any eq telnet access-list 125 deny ip any any int s0/0 ip access-group 125 in
12. What are three functions of the debug command? (Choose three.)
show a "snapshot" of the normal network operations
* examine specific types of traffic
* display dynamic data and events
* assist in isolation of protocol and configuration problems
notify the administrator of failed devices
help resolve DNS host-table issues
13. Which keyword can take the place of 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 in an access control list?
host
established
* any
all
log-input
14. What is the purpose of an access control list? (Choose two.)
* ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.
Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
* ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.
ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.
ACLs provide accounting on an interface level.
15. Which commands should be executed on a router to determine the IOS image filename and special features? (Choose two.)
* router# show version
router# show running-config
* router# show flash
router# show startup-config
router# show mem
16. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
* router# show running-config
router# show startup-config
router# show flash
router# show version
17. A network administrator is adding a previously configured router to the network. Which group of commands will allow the administrator to clear the previous configuration from the router?
Router# erase flash Router# reload
* Router# erase startup-config Router# reload
Router# erase running-config control-alt-delete
Router# erase startup-config Router# reboot
18. A network administrator needs to verify the routing table by viewing the next hops available. What command should be issued?
* router# show ip route
router# show ip interface
router# show protocols
router# show traffic
19. A network administrator needs to configure Telnet access to a router. Which group of commands will enable Telnet access to the router?
Router(config)# enable password class Router(config)# line con 0 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork Router(config)# enable password cisco
Router(config)# line aux 0 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco
* Router(config)# enable password class Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco
20. Why would a network administrator configure a static route? (Choose two.)
to provide the required support for point-to-point connections
* to provide a backup route for dynamically learned routes
to allow for automatic updates of network changes
to provide a path for routing protocol updates
* to establish a default route
21. What does a router use to determine the best route if a distance vector routing protocol is configured? (Choose two.)
triggered events
* hop count
DUAL
SPF algorithm
* bandwidth
spanning-tree
22. Which commands configure RIP on the Key West router?
* KeyWest(config)# router ripKeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
KeyWest(config)# router ripKeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
KeyWest(config)# router ripKeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
KeyWest(config)# router ripKeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0KeyWest(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
23. The network administrator wants to configure a static route for backup purposes on a router already configured with RIP. What command will accomplish this?
Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s1
Router(config)# ip route 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.15.2
Router(config)# ip route 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.15.2 100
* Router(config)# ip route 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.15.2 130
24. A technician is connecting five PCs to a switch in an effort to create a workgroup. What type of cable should be used to connect the PCs to the switch?
* straight-through
crossover
rollover
IDE ribbon cable
25. A technician has mounted a new router on a rack. What type of cable should be used to connect the PC to the console port on the router?
straight-through cable
* rollover cable
crossover cable
IDE ribbon cable
26. A technician needs to make a cable to use on a network. The technician uses CAT 5 UTP, RJ-45 plugs, and implements the T568A standard on one end of the cable and T568B on the other end. What type of cable will be produced?
straight-through
* crossover
rollover
patch
27. A network technician is trying to establish a console connection between a laptop and a new router. No output is appearing in the HyperTerminal session that is running on the laptop. What is a possible cause of the problem?
The technician used 9600 bits per second when opening the HyperTerminal session.
* The technician is using a crossover cable to establish the connection.
New routers must be configured using Telnet.
The technician has not provided a password to enter global configuration mode.
28. How many collision domains are in the exhibit?
1
2
3
6
* 7
29. How many broadcast domains does a network with 75 hosts, 4 servers, 6 network printers, and 7 switches have?
* 1
7
75
92
30. A network technician is trying to troubleshoot a serial connection. The technician issues the command show interface serial 0/1. What is indicated by the output Serial 0/1 is up, line protocol is down?
The interface is operational.
* There is a data-link layer problem.
There is a physical layer problem.
The interface has been shut down by an administrator.
31. A network technician is troubleshooting a problem on a router remotely using a Telnet session. The technician wishes to know what type of cable is connected to the router but cannot make a physical inspection. What command can be issued to determine the type of cable connected to the router?
router# show interface s0/0
router# show running-config
* router# show controllers s0/0
router# show cdp neighbors s0/0
32. Which statements define the operation of the ping command? (Choose three.)
Ping can be issued at a router prompt but not at a workstation command prompt.
* Ping is used to test the connectivity of a particular destination.
* Ping sends echo request messages to a destination device to determine connectivity.
Ping confirms Layer 2 connectivity between devices.
* Ping is an ICMP protocol.
Ping returns three "Reply" statements to the router prompt if successful.
33. A technician is installing a switch and adding PCs to an existing network. Before using a cable, the technician inspects the ends to verify the cable type. The pinout on one end of the cable is exactly the opposite of the pinout on the other end. What type of cable is the technician about to use?
straight-through
crossover
* rollover
IDE ribbon cable
34. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the LAN pictured is operating at 10 Mbps, what is the maximum amount of bandwidth that is available to a host on any of the LAN segments shown if all of the hosts are transmitting simultaneously?
1 Mbps
* 2 Mbps
5 Mbps
10 Mbps
Rabu, 03 September 2008
Cisco Modul
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